Wednesday, 30 May 2018

Q. A parent asks the nurse about head lice (pediculosis capitis) infestation during a visit to the clinic. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse tell the parent is most common in a child infected with head lice?

A. Itching of the scalp.
B. Scaling of the scalp.
C. Serous weeping on the scalp surface.
D. Pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the scalp surface.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The most common characteristic of head lice infestation (pediculosis capitis) is severe itching. The head is the most common site of lice infestation. If the child scratches, scaling may occur. Itching also occurs when lice infest other parts of the body. Scratch marks are almost always found when lice are present. Weeping on the scalp surface may be an indication of an infection or other dermatologic condition. Hemorrhagic spots are not a symptom of head lice, but may be caused by scratch marks.

Tuesday, 29 May 2018

Q. A dehydrated 3 year old has vomited three times in the last hour and continues to have frequent diarrhea. The child was admitted 2 days ago with gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus. The child weighs 22 kg, has a normal saline lock in the right hand, and has had 30 ml of urine output in the last 4 hours. Using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique for communication, the nurse calls the primary healthcare provider with a recommendation for:

A. Giving a dose of loperaminde (Immodium).
B. Starting a fluid bolus of normal saline.
C. Beginning an intravenous (IV) antibiotic.
D. Establishing a Foley catheter.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The child is dehydrated, cannot retain oral fluids, and continues to have diarrhea. A normal saline bolus should be given followed by maintenance IV fluids. Anti-diarrheal medications are not recommended for children and will prolong the illness. The child has gastroenteritis caused by a viral illness. IV antibiotics are not indicated for viral illnesses.

Monday, 28 May 2018

Q. After teaching the parents of an 18-month-old who was treated for a foreign body obstruction about the three cardinal signs indicative of choking, the nurse determines that the teaching has been successful when the parents state that a child is choking when he or she cannot speak, turns blue, and does which of the following?

A. Vomits.
B. Gasps.
C. Gags.
D. Collapses.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The three cardinal signs indicating that a child is truly choking and requires immediate life-saving interventions include inability to speak, blue color (cyanosis), and collapse. Vomiting does not occur while a child is unable to breathe. Once the object is dislodged, however, vomiting may occur. Gasping, a sudden intake of air, indicates that the child is still able to inhale. When a child is choking, air is not being exchanged, so gagging will not occur.

Saturday, 26 May 2018

Q. The nurse is assigning tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client with an abdominal hysterectomy on the first postoperative day. Which of the following can NOT be delegated to the UAP?

A. Taking vital signs.
B. Recording intake and output.
C. Giving perineal care.
D. Assessing the incision site.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The registered nurse is responsible for monitoring the surgical site for condition of the dressing, status of the incision, and signs and symptoms of complications. Unlicensed assistive personnel who have been trained to report abnormalities to the registered nurse supervising the care may take vital signs, record intake and output, and give perineal care.

Friday, 25 May 2018

Q. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse. Which pulse feature should the nurse document?

A. Timing in the cycle
B. Amplitude
C. Pitch
D. Intensity

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The nurse should document the rate, rhythm, and amplitude, such as weak or bounding, of a client's pulse. Pitch, timing, and intensity aren't associated with pulse assessment.

Thursday, 24 May 2018

Q. A health care provider orders 0.5 mg of protamine sulfate for a client who is showing signs of bleeding after receiving a 100-unit dose of heparin. The nurse should expect the effects of the protamine sulfate to be noted in which of the following time frames?

A. 5 minutes.
B. 10 minutes.
C. 20 minutes.
D. 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A dose of 0.5 mg of protamine sulfate reverses a 100-unit dose of heparin within 20 minutes. The nurse should administer protamine sulfate by I.V. push slowly to avoid adverse effects, such as hypotension, dyspnea, bradycardia, and anaphylaxis.

Wednesday, 23 May 2018

Q. Before preparing a client for surgery, the nurse assists in developing a teaching plan. What is the primary purpose of preoperative teaching?

A. To determine whether the client is psychologically ready for surgery
B. To express concerns to the client about the surgery
C. To reduce the risk of postoperative complications
D. To explain the risks associated with the surgery and obtain informed consent

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Preoperative teaching helps reduce the risk of postoperative complications by telling the client what to expect and providing a chance for him to practice, before surgery, any required postoperative activities, such as breathing and leg exercises. The physician — not the nurse — is responsible for determining the client's psychological readiness for surgery. It's inappropriate for the nurse to express personal concerns about surgery to a client. The physician should describe alternative treatments and explain the risks to the client when obtaining informed consent.

Tuesday, 22 May 2018

Q. The nurse-manager of a home health facility includes which item in the capital budget?

A. Salaries and benefits for her staff
B. A $1,200 computer upgrade
C. Office supplies
D. Client-education materials costing $300

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Capital budgets generally include items valued at more than $500. Salaries and benefits are part of the personnel budget. Office supplies and client education materials are part of the operating budget.

Monday, 21 May 2018

Q. Of the following findings in the client's history, which would be the least likely to have predisposed the client to renal calculi?

A. Having had several urinary tract infections in the past 2 years.
B. Having taken large doses of vitamin C over the past several years.
C. Drinking less than the recommended amount of milk.
D. Having been on prolonged bed rest after an accident the previous year.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A high, rather than low, milk intake predisposes to renal calculi formation, owing to the calcium in milk. Recurrent urinary tract infections are implicated in stone formation as certain bacteria promote stone formation. High daily doses of vitamins C are a risk factor because they can increase the citric acid level. Prolonged immobility is a risk factor for renal calculi because it causes calcium to be released into the bloodstream.

Saturday, 19 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Neurosensory Disorders
Q. A client is receiving an I.V. infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?

A. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased heart rate

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.

Friday, 18 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Musculoskeletal Disorders
Q. A client has been diagnosed with degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis) of the left hip. Which of the following factors in the client's history would most likely increase the joint symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A. A long history of smoking.
B. Excessive alcohol use.
C. Obesity.
D. Emotional stress.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Osteoarthritis most commonly results from "wear and tear"---excessive and prolonged mechanical stress on the joints. Increased weight increases stress on weight-bearing joints. Therefore, an obese client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to lose weight. Smoking does not cause osteoarthritis. Excessive alcohol use does not cause osteoarthritis. Emotional stress does not cause osteoarthritis.

Thursday, 17 May 2018

Q. A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about self-management of his condition. The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every:

A. 10 g of carbohydrates.
B. 15 g of carbohydrates.
C. 20 g of carbohydrates.
D. 25 g of carbohydrates.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every 15 g of carbohydrates.

Wednesday, 16 May 2018

Questions Of The Day, Immune and Hematologic Disorders
Q. A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest of her life. Which is the nurse's best response?

A. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient acid."
B. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor."
C. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because of kidney dysfunction."
D. "The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin because of rapid red blood cell production."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Most clients with pernicious anemia have deficient production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Intrinsic factor attaches to the vitamin in the stomach and forms a complex that allows the vitamin to be absorbed in the small intestine. The stomach is producing enough acid, there is not an excessive excretion of the vitamin, and there is not a rapid production of red blood cells in this condition.

Tuesday, 15 May 2018

Q. A nurse is performing a baseline assessment of a client's skin integrity. What is the priority assessment parameter?

A. Family history of pressure ulcers
B. Presence of pressure ulcers on the client
C. Potential areas of pressure ulcer development
D. Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: When assessing skin integrity, the overall risk potential of developing pressure ulcers takes priority. Overall risk encompasses existing pressure ulcers as well as potential areas for development of pressure ulcers. Family history isn't important when assessing skin integrity.

Monday, 14 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Gastrointestinal Disorders
Q. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is prescribed postoperatively. The nurse should evaluate the drug's therapeutic effect when the client expresses relief from which of the following?

A. Nausea.
B. Dizziness.
C. Abdominal spasms.
D. Abdominal distention.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Prochlorperazine is administered postoperatively to control nausea and vomiting. Prochlorperazine is also used in psychotherapy because of its effects on mood and behavior. It is not used to treat dizziness, abdominal spasms, or abdominal distention.

Saturday, 12 May 2018

Q. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg by mouth daily, and furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal cramps occur because these signs and symptoms may signal digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may also cause:

A. visual disturbances.
B. taste and smell alterations.
C. dry mouth and urine retention.
D. nocturia and sleep disturbances.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Digoxin toxicity may cause visual disturbances (such as, flickering flashes of light, colored or halo vision, photophobia, blurring, diplopia, and scotomata), central nervous system abnormalities (such as headache, fatigue, lethargy, depression, irritability and, if profound, seizures, delusions, hallucinations, and memory loss), and cardiovascular abnormalities (abnormal heart rate and arrhythmias). Digoxin toxicity doesn't cause taste and smell alterations. Dry mouth and urine retention typically occur with anticholinergic agents, not inotropic agents such as digoxin. Nocturia and sleep disturbances are adverse effects of furosemide — especially if the client takes the second daily dose in the evening, which may cause diuresis at night.

Friday, 11 May 2018

Question Of The Day, The Neonate
Q. During the first feeding, the nurse observes that the neonate becomes cyanotic after gagging on mucus. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

A. Start mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.
B. Contact the neonatal resuscitation team.
C. Raise the neonate's head and pat the back gently.
D. Clear the neonate's airway with suction or gravity.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: If a neonate gags on mucus and becomes cyanotic during the first feeding, the airway is most likely closed. The nurse should clear the airway by gravity (by lowering the infant's head) or suction. Starting mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is not indicated unless the neonate remains cyanotic and lowering his head or suctioning doesn't clear his airway. Contacting the neonatal resuscitation team is not warranted unless the infant remains cyanotic even after measures to clear the airway. Raising the neonate's head and patting the back are not appropriate actions for removing mucus. Doing so allows the mucus to remain lodged causing further breathing difficulties.

Thursday, 10 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Postpartum Period
Q. On the second postpartum day a gravida 6, para 5 complains of intermittent abdominal cramping. The nurse should assess for:

A. endometritis.
B. postpartum hemorrhage.
C. subinvolution.
D. afterpains.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: In a multiparous client, decreased uterine muscle tone causes alternating relaxation and contraction during uterine involution, which leads to afterpains. The client's symptoms don't suggest endometritis, hemorrhage, or subinvolution.

Wednesday, 9 May 2018

Q. Which nursing action is required before a client in labor receives epidural anesthesia?

A. Give a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
B. Check for maternal pupil dilation.
C. Assess maternal reflexes.
D. Assess maternal gait.

Correct Answer:  A

Explanation: One of the major adverse effects of epidural administration is hypotension. Therefore, a 500-ml fluid bolus is usually administered to prevent hypotension in the client who wishes to receive an epidural for pain relief. Assessing maternal reflexes, pupil response, and gait isn't necessary.

Tuesday, 8 May 2018

Q. A nurse is assessing the legs of a client who's 36 weeks pregnant. Which finding should the nurse expect?

A. Absent pedal pulses
B. Bilateral dependent edema
C. Sluggish capillary refill
D. Unilateral calf enlargement

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: As the uterus grows heavier during pregnancy, femoral venous pressure rises, leading to bilateral dependent edema. Factors interfering with venous return, such as sitting or standing for long periods, contribute to edema. Absence of pedal pulses and sluggish capillary refill signal inadequate circulation to the legs — an unexpected finding during pregnancy. Unilateral calf enlargement, also an abnormal finding, may indicate thrombosis.

Monday, 7 May 2018

Q. Which of the following is a priority during the first 24 hours of hospitalization for a comatose client with suspected drug overdose?

A. Educate regarding drug abuse.
B. Minimize pain.
C. Maintain intact skin.
D. Increase caloric intake.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Maintaining intact skin is a priority for the unconscious client. Unconscious clients need to be turned every hour to prevent complications of immobility, which include pressure ulcers and stasis pneumonia. The unconscious client cannot be educated at this time. Pain is not a concern. During the first 24 hours, the unconscious client will mostly likely be on nothing-by-mouth status.

Sunday, 6 May 2018

Questions Of The Day, Psychotic Disorders
Q. A client with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to himself. This behavior is characteristic of:

A. delusion.
B. looseness of association.
C. illusion.
D. hallucination.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Auditory hallucination, in which one hears voices when no external stimuli exist, is common in schizophrenic clients. Such behaviors as laughing, yelling, and talking to oneself suggest such a hallucination. Delusions, also common in schizophrenia, are false beliefs or ideas that arise without external stimuli. Clients with schizophrenia may exhibit looseness of association, a pattern of thinking and communicating in which ideas aren't clearly linked to one another. Illusion is a less severe perceptual disturbance in which the client misinterprets actual external stimuli. Illusions are rarely associated with schizophrenia.

Saturday, 5 May 2018

Q. A client was hospitalized for 1 week with major depression with suicidal ideation. He is taking venlafaxine (Effexor), 75 mg three times a day, and is planning to return to work. The nurse asks the client if he is experiencing thoughts of self-harm. The client responds, "I hardly think about it anymore and wouldn't do anything to hurt myself." The nurse should make which judgment about the client?

A. The client is decompensating and in need of being readmitted to the hospital.
B. The client needs an adjustment or increase in his dose of antidepressant.
C. The depression is improving and the suicidal ideation is lessening.
D. The presence of suicidal ideation warrants a telephone call to the client's primary care provider.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The client's statements about being in control of his behavior and his or her plans to return to work indicate an improvement in depression and that suicidal ideation, although present, is decreasing. Nothing in his comments or behavior indicate he is decompensating. There is no evidence to support an increase or adjustment in the dose of Effexor or a call to the primary care provider. Typically, the cognitive components of depression are the last symptoms eliminated. For the client to be experiencing some suicidal ideation in the second week of psychopharmacologic treatment is not unusual.

Friday, 4 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Anxiety Disorders
Q. A 16-year-old academically gifted boy is about to graduate from high school early, because he has completed all courses needed to earn a diploma. Within the last 3 months, he has experienced panic attacks that have forced him to leave classes early and occasionally miss a day of school. He is concerned that these attacks may hinder his ability to pursue a college degree. What would be the best response by the school nurse who has been helping him deal with his panic attacks?

A. "It is natural to be worried about going into a new environment. I am sure with your abilities you will do well once you get settled."
B. "You are putting too much pressure on yourself. You just need to relax more and things will be alright."
C. "It might be best for you to postpone going to college. You need to get these panic attacks controlled first."
D. "It sounds like you have a real concern about transitioning to college. I can refer you to a health care provider for assessment and treatment."

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The client's concerns are real and serious enough to warrant assessment by a physician rather than being dismissed as trivial. Though he is very intelligent, his intelligence cannot overcome his anxiety. In fact, his anxiety is likely to interfere with his ability to perform in college if no assessment and treatment are received. Just postponing college is likely to increase rather than lower the client's anxiety, because it does not address the panic he is experiencing.

Thursday, 3 May 2018

Question Of The Day, Foundations of Psychiatric Nursing
Q. Based on a client's history of violence toward others and her inability to cope with anger, which of the following should the nurse use as the most important indicator of goal achievement before discharge?

A. Acknowledgment of her angry feelings.
B. Ability to describe situations that provoke angry feelings.
C. Development of a list of how she has handled her anger in the past.
D. Verbalization of her feelings in an appropriate manner.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Verbalizing feelings, especially feelings of anger, in an appropriate manner is an adaptive method of coping that reduces the chance that the client will act out these feelings toward others. The client's ability to verbalize her feelings indicates a change in behavior, a crucial indicator of goal achievement. Although acknowledging feelings of anger and describing situations that precipitate angry feelings are important in helping the client reach her goal, they are not appropriate indicators that she has changed her behavior. Asking the client to list how she has handled anger in the past is helpful if the nurse discusses coping methods with the client. However, based on this client's history, this would not be helpful because the nurse and client are already aware of the client's aggression toward others. 




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