Wednesday, 17 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Postpartum Period
Q. The nurse is caring for several mother-baby couplets. In planning the care for each of the couplets, which mother would the nurse expect to have the most severe afterbirth pains?

A. G 4, P 1 client who is breastfeeding her infant.
B. G 3, P 3 client who is breastfeeding her infant.
C. G 2, P 2 cesarean client who is bottle-feeding her infant.
D. G 3, P 3 client who is bottle-feeding her infant.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The major reasons for afterbirth pains are breast-feeding, high parity, overdistended uterus during pregnancy, and a uterus filled with blood clots. Physiologically, afterbirth pains are caused by intermittent contraction and relaxation of the uterus. These contractions are stronger in multigravidas in order to maintain a contracted uterus. The release of oxytocin when breast-feeding also stimulates uterine contractions. There is no data to suggest any of these clients has had an overdistended uterus or currently has clots within the uterus. The G 3, P 3 client who is breast-feeding has the highest parity of the clients listed, which—in addition to breast-feeding—places her most at risk for afterbirth pains. The G 2, P 2 postcesarean client may have cramping but it should be less than the G 3, P 3 client. The G 3, P 3 client who is bottle-feeding would be at risk for afterbirth pains because she has delivered several children, but her choice to bottle-feed reduces her risk of pain.
Nursing Degree, Nursing Responsibilities, Nursing Professionals, Nursing Roles, Nursing Schools

The staff and administrators of the hospital in Jonquière, Quebec, were in disbelief when it was discovered that a woman who had been working as a nurse and caring for hospital patients was a fraud.

Working as a ‘Nurse’


Following 20 years of experience in the job, the woman was immediately fired from her position in the said hospital by the health authority in the Saguenay-Lac-Saint-Jean region of eastern Quebec.

The health authority revealed that the woman managed to get hired and retain her position by presenting someone else’s nursing license number with an identical name as hers.

It was during her enrollment in a training course when an official remarked that the age placed on her license number did not meet up with her actual age.

Her tactic readily made headlines and she was quickly suspended pending an investigation, which led to her expulsion.

Prior to her dismissal, the woman had served in various departments of the hospital, including the operating room.

No Evidence of ‘Nursing Degree’


The health authorities teamed up with the investigators and found out that there is no evidence the woman had a nursing degree.

“Over the years, the documents asked of her were provided — falsified documents,” said spokeswoman Joelle Savard. She mentioned that the gap in its records system has been settled to ensure two people cannot use the same license number.

The spokeswoman was in disbelief how someone with no formal training had remained in the position for so long without anyone noticing her secret. She thought that the woman had been with mostly good medical staff and incorporated the basic and required skills for the job.

Big Surprise


The news arrived as a great hysteria, according to a union representative, Julie Bouchard.

“A few weeks, or a few months, that has happened before. But for such a long time, in our minds it was impossible,” she said.

President of Quebec’s Order of Nurses, Luc Mathieu, stated such matters involving frauds are rare but can cause great distress.

“It’s very serious, because that person could have committed acts that could have had serious consequences for patients,” he stated.

Tuesday, 16 July 2019

Q. A pregnant client in her third trimester is started on chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 25 mg four times daily. Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan?

A. "Don't drive because there's a possibility of seizures occurring."
B. "Avoid going out in the sun without a sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 25."
C. "Stop the medication immediately if constipation occurs."
D. "Tell your doctor if you experience an increase in blood pressure."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Chlorpromazine is a low-potency antipsychotic that is likely to cause sun-sensitive skin. Therefore the client needs instructions about using sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 25 or higher. Typically, chlorpromazine is not associated with an increased risk of seizures. Although constipation is a common adverse effect of this drug, it can be managed with diet, fluids, and exercise. The drug does not need to be discontinued. Chlorpromazine is associated with postural hypotension, not hypertension. Additionally, if postural hypotension occurs, safety measures, such as changing positions slowly and dangling the feet before arising, not stopping the drug, are instituted.

Monday, 15 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Psychotic Disorders
Q. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, just sat down to watch television in the lounge. As the nurse approaches the lounge area, the client states, "The sun is shining. Where is my son? I love Lucy. Let's play ball." The client is displaying:

A. Concreteness.
B. Flight of ideas.
C. Depersonalization.
D. Use of neologisms.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The client is demonstrating flight of ideas, or the rapid, unconnected, and often illogical progression from one topic to another. Concreteness involves interpreting another person's words literally. Depersonalization refers to feelings of strangeness concerning the environment or the self. A neologism is a word made up by a client.

Saturday, 13 July 2019

Question Of The Day, School-age Child
Q. A 7 year old with a history of tonic-clonic seizures has been actively seizing for 10 minutes. The child weighs 22 kg and currently has an intravenous (IV) line of D5 1/2 NS + 20 meq KCL/L running at 60 ml/hr. Vital signs are a temperature of 38 degrees C, heart rate of 120, respiratory rate of 28, and oxygen saturation of 92%. Using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique for communication, the nurse calls the primary healthcare provider with a recommendation for:

A. Rectal diazepam (Diastat).
B. IV lorazepam (Ativan).
C. Rectal acetaminophen (Tylenol).
D. IV fosphenytoin.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: IV ativan is the benzodiazepine of choice for treating prolonged seizure activity. IV benzodiazepines potentiate the action of the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter, stopping seizure activity. If an IV line is not available, rectal Diastat is the benzodiazepine of choice. The child does have a low-grade fever; however, this is likely caused by the excessive motor activity. The primary goal for the child is to stop the seizure in order to reduce neurologic damage. Benzodiazepines are used for the initial treatment of prolonged seizures. Once the seizure has ended, a loading dose of fosphenytoin or phenobarbital is given.

Thursday, 11 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Infant
Q. A 10-month-old child with recurrent otitis media is brought to the clinic for evaluation. To help determine the cause of the child's condition, the nurse should ask the parents:

A. "Does water ever get into the baby's ears during shampooing?"
B. "Do you give the baby a bottle to take to bed?"
C. "Have you noticed a lot of wax in the baby's ears?"
D. "Can the baby combine two words when speaking?"

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: In a young child, the eustachian tube is relatively short, wide, and horizontal, promoting drainage of secretions from the nasopharynx into the middle ear. Therefore, asking if the child takes a bottle to bed is appropriate because drinking while lying down may cause fluids to pool in the pharyngeal cavity, increasing the risk of otitis media. Asking if the parent noticed earwax, or cerumen, in the external ear canal is incorrect because wax doesn't promote the development of otitis media. During shampooing, water may become trapped in the external ear canal by large amounts of cerumen, possibly causing otitis external (external ear inflammation) as opposed to internal ear inflammation. Asking if the infant can combine two words is incorrect because a 10-month-old child isn't expected to do so.

Wednesday, 10 July 2019

Q. A client complains of severe abdominal pain. To elicit as much information as possible about the pain, the nurse should ask:

A . "Do you have the pain all the time?"
B. "Can you describe the pain?"
C. "Where does it hurt the most?"
D. "Is the pain stabbing like a knife?"




Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Asking an open-ended question such as "Can you describe the pain?" encourages the client to describe any and all aspects of the pain in his own words. The other options are likely to elicit less information because they're more specific and would limit the client's response.


Tuesday, 9 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Medication and I.V. Administration
Q. A 56-year-old client is receiving chemotherapy that has the potential to cause pulmonary toxicity. Which of the following symptoms indicates a toxic response to the chemotherapy?

A. Decrease in appetite.
B. Drowsiness.
C. Spasms of the diaphragm.
D. Cough and shortness of breath.


Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Cough and shortness of breath are significant symptoms because they may indicate decreasing pulmonary function secondary to drug toxicity. Decrease in appetite, difficulty in thinking clearly, and spasms of the diaphragm may occur as a result of chemotherapy; however, they are not indicative of pulmonary toxicity.


Monday, 8 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Basic Physical Care
Q. Which scenario complies with Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) regulations?

A. Two nurses in the cafeteria are discussing a client's condition.
B. The health care team is discussing a client's care during a formal care conference.
C. A nurse checks the computer for the laboratory results of a neighbor who has been admitted to another floor.
D. A nurse talks with her spouse about a client's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: To provide interdisciplinary continuity of care, nurses must share relevant information during client care conferences. Nurses discussing information in the cafeteria may be overheard; this indiscretion violates HIPAA regulations. Looking up laboratory results for a neighbor is a HIPAA violation, as is discussing a client's condition with one's spouse.


Saturday, 6 July 2019

Q. A nurse is conducting an initial assessment on a client with possible tuberculosis. Which assessment finding indicates a risk factor for tuberculosis?

A. The client sees his physician for a check-up yearly.
B. The client has never traveled outside of the country.
C. The client had a liver transplant 2 years ago.
D. The client works in a health care insurance office.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A history of immunocompromised status, such as that which occurs with liver transplantation, places the client at a higher risk for contracting tuberculosis. Other risk factors include inadequate health care, traveling to countries with high rates of tuberculosis (such as southeastern Asia, Africa, and Latin America), being a health care worker who performs procedures in which exposure to respiratory secretions is likely, and being institutionalized.

Friday, 5 July 2019

Q. When obtaining the vital signs of a client with multiple traumatic injuries, a nurse detects bradycardia, bradypnea, and systolic hypertension. The nurse must notify the physician immediately because these findings may reflect which complication?

A. Shock
B. Encephalitis
C. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
D. Status epilepticus

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: When ICP increases, Cushing's triad may develop, which involves decreased heart and respiratory rates and increased systolic blood pressure. Shock typically causes tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. In encephalitis, the temperature rises and the heart and respiratory rates may increase from the effects of fever on the metabolic rate. (If the client doesn't maintain adequate hydration, hypotension may occur.) Status epilepticus causes unceasing seizures, not changes in vital signs.


Wednesday, 3 July 2019

Q. A client with inflammatory bowel disease is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The basic component of the client's TPN solution is most likely to be:

A. An isotonic dextrose solution.
B. A hypertonic dextrose solution.
C. A hypotonic dextrose solution.
D. A colloidal dextrose solution.



Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The TPN solution is usually a hypertonic dextrose solution. The greater the concentration of dextrose in solution, the greater the tonicity. Hypertonic dextrose solutions are used to meet the body's calorie demands in a volume of fluid that will not overload the cardiovascular system. An isotonic dextrose solution (e.g., 5% dextrose in water) or a hypotonic dextrose solution will not provide enough calories to meet metabolic needs. Colloids are plasma expanders and blood products and are not used in TPN.

Tuesday, 2 July 2019

Q. While assessing a male neonate whose mother desires him to be circumcised, the nurse observes that the neonate's urinary meatus appears to be located on the ventral surface of the penis. The primary health care provider is notified because the nurse suspects which of the following?

A. Phimosis.
B. Hydrocele.
C. Epispadias.
D. Hypospadias.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The condition in which the urinary meatus is located on the ventral surface of the penis, termed hypospadias, occurs in 1 of every 500 male infants. Circumcision is delayed until the condition is corrected surgically, usually between 6 and 12 months of age. Phimosis is an inability to retract the prepuce at an age when it should be retractable or by age 3 years. Phimosis may necessitate circumcision or surgical intervention. Hydrocele is a painless swelling of the scrotum that is common in neonates. It is not a contraindication for circumcision. Epispadias occurs when the urinary meatus is located on the dorsal surface of the penis. It is extremely rare and is commonly associated with bladder extrophy.

Monday, 1 July 2019

Q. While assessing the fundus of a multiparous client on the first postpartum day, the nurse performs handwashing and dons clean gloves. Which of the following should the nurse do next?

A. Place the nondominant hand above the symphysis pubis and the dominant hand at the umbilicus.
B. Ask the client to assume a side-lying position with the knees flexed.
C. Perform massage vigorously at the level of the umbilicus if the fundus feels boggy.
D. Place the client on a bedpan in case the uterine palpation stimulates the client to void.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The nurse should place the nondominant hand above the symphysis pubis and the dominant hand at the umbilicus to palpate the fundus. This prevents uterine inversion and trauma, which can be very painful to the client. The nurse should ask the client to assume a supine, not side-lying, position with the knees flexed. The fundus can be palpated in this position and the perineal pads can be evaluated for lochia amounts. The fundus should be massaged gently if the fundus feels boggy. Vigorous massaging may fatigue the uterus and cause it to become firm and then boggy again. The nurse should ask the client to void before fundal evaluation. A full bladder can cause discomfort to the client, the uterus to be deviated to one side, and postpartum hemorrhage.

Sunday, 30 June 2019

21st Century nursing is the glue that holds a patient’s health care journey together. Across the entire patient experience, and wherever there is someone in need of care, nurses work tirelessly to identify and protect the needs of the individual.

Beyond the time-honored reputation for compassion and dedication lies a highly specialized profession, which is constantly evolving to address the needs of society. From ensuring the most accurate diagnoses to the ongoing education of the public about critical health issues; nurses are indispensable in safeguarding public health.

Nursing, Nurse Career, Nursing Responsibilities, Nursing Professionals

Nursing can be described as both an art and a science; a heart and a mind. At its heart, lies a fundamental respect for human dignity and an intuition for a patient’s needs. This is supported by the mind, in the form of rigorous core learning. Due to the vast range of specialisms and complex skills in the nursing profession, each nurse will have specific strengths, passions, and expertise.

However, nursing has a unifying ethos:  In assessing a patient, nurses do not just consider test results. Through the critical thinking exemplified in the nursing process (see below), nurses use their judgment to integrate objective data with subjective experience of a patient’s biological, physical and behavioral needs. This ensures that every patient, from city hospital to community health center; state prison to summer camp, receives the best possible care regardless of who they are, or where they may be.

What exactly do nurses do?


In a field as varied as nursing, there is no typical answer. Responsibilities can range from making acute treatment decisions to providing inoculations in schools. The key unifying characteristic in every role is the skill and drive that it takes to be a nurse. Through long-term monitoring of patients’ behavior and knowledge-based expertise, nurses are best placed to take an all-encompassing view of a patient’s wellbeing.

What types of nurses are there?


All nurses complete a rigorous program of extensive education and study, and work directly with patients, families, and communities using the core values of the nursing process. In the United States today, nursing roles can be divided into three categories by the specific responsibilities they undertake.

Registered Nurses


Registered nurses (RN) form the backbone of health care provision in the United States. RNs provide critical health care to the public wherever it is needed.

Key Responsibilities

◈ Perform physical exams and health histories before making critical decisions

◈ Provide health promotion, counseling and education

◈ Administer medications and other personalized interventions

◈ Coordinate care, in collaboration with a wide array of health care professionals

Advanced Practice Registered Nurses


Advance Practice Registered Nurses (APRN) hold at least a Master’s degree, in addition to the initial nursing education and licensing required for all RNs. The responsibilities of an APRN include, but are not limited to, providing invaluable primary and preventative health care to the public. APRNs treat and diagnose illnesses, advise the public on health issues, manage chronic disease and engage in continuous education to remain at the very forefront of any technological, methodological, or other developments in the field.

APRNs Practice Specialist Roles


◈ Nurse Practitioners prescribe medication, diagnose and treat minor illnesses and injuries

◈ Certified Nurse-Midwives provide gynecological and low-risk obstetrical care

◈ Clinical Nurse Specialists handle a wide range of physical and mental health problems

◈ Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetists administer more than 65 percent of all anesthetics

Licensed Practical Nurses


Licensed Practical Nurses (LPN), also known as Licensed Vocational Nurses (LVNs), support the core health care team and work under the supervision of an RN, APRN or MD. By providing basic and routine care, they ensure the wellbeing of patients throughout the whole of the health care journey

Key Responsibilities

◈ Check vital signs and look for signs that health is deteriorating or improving

◈ Perform basic nursing functions such as changing bandages and wound dressings

◈ Ensure patients are comfortable, well-fed and hydrated

◈ May administer medications in some settings

What is the nursing process?


No matter what their field or specialty, all nurses utilize the same nursing process; a scientific method designed to deliver the very best in patient care, through five simple steps.

◈ Assessment – Nurses assess patients on an in-depth physiological, economic, social and lifestyle basis.

◈ Diagnosis – Through careful consideration of both physical symptoms and patient behavior, the nurse forms a diagnosis.

◈ Outcomes / Planning – The nurse uses their expertise to set realistic goals for the patient’s recovery. These objectives are then closely monitored.

◈ Implementation – By accurately implementing the care plan, nurses guarantee consistency of care for the patient whilst meticulously documenting their progress.

◈ Evaluation – By closely analyzing the effectiveness of the care plan and studying patient response, the nurse hones the plan to achieve the very best patient outcomes. 

Nurses are Key to the Health of the Nation


◈ There are over 4 million registered nurses in the United States today.

◈ That means that one in every 100 people is a registered nurse.

◈ Nurses are in every community – large and small – providing expert care from birth to the end of life.

◈ According to the January 2012 “United States Registered Nurse Workforce Report Card and Shortage Forecast” in the American Journal of Medical Quality, a shortage of registered nurses is projected to spread across the country between 2009 and 2030. In this state-by-state analysis, the authors forecast the RN shortage to be most intense in the South and the West

◈ Nurses' roles range from direct patient care and case management to establishing nursing practice standards, developing quality assurance procedures, and directing complex nursing care systems.

Saturday, 29 June 2019

Q. The mother of a client with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia calls the visiting nurse in the outpatient clinic to report that her daughter has not answered the phone in 10 days. "She was doing so well for months. I don't know what's wrong. I'm worried." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. "Maybe she's just mad at you. Did you have an argument?"
B. "She may have stopped taking her medications. I'll check on her."
C. "Don't worry about this. It happens sometimes."
D. "Go over to her apartment and see what's going on."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Noncompliance with medications is common in the client with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. The nurse has the responsibility to assess this situation. Asking the mother if they've argued or if the client is mad at the mother or telling the mother to go over to the apartment and see what's going on places the blame and responsibility on the mother and therefore is inappropriate. Telling the mother not to worry ignores the seriousness of the client's symptoms.

Friday, 28 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Mood, Adjustment, and Dementia Disorders
Q. A 40-year-old executive who was unexpectedly laid off from work 2 days earlier complains of fatigue and an inability to cope. He admits drinking excessively over the previous 48 hours. This behavior is an example of:

A. alcoholism.
B. a manic episode.
C. situational crisis.
D. depression.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A situational crisis results from a specific event in the life of a person who is overwhelmed by the situation and reacts emotionally. Fatigue, insomnia, and inability to make decisions are common signs and symptoms. The situational crisis may precipitate behavior that causes a crisis (alcohol or drug abuse). There isn't enough information to label this client an alcoholic. A manic episode is characterized by euphoria and labile affect. Symptoms of depression are usually present for 2 or more weeks.


Thursday, 27 June 2019

Q. The family of an older adult wants their mother to have counseling for depression. During the initial nursing assessment, the client denies the need for counseling. Which of the following comments by the client supports the fact that the client may not need counseling?

A. "My doctor just put me on an antidepressant, and I'll be fine in a week or so."
B. "My daughter sent me here. She's mad because I don't have the energy to take care of my grandkids."
C. "Since I've gotten over the death of my husband, I've had more energy and been more active than before he died."
D. "My son got worried because I made this silly comment about wanting to be with my husband in heaven."

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Resolving grief and having increased energy and activity convey good mental health, indicating that counseling is not necessary at this time. Taking an antidepressant or having less energy and involvement with grandchildren reflects possible depression and the need for counseling. Wanting to be with her dead husband suggests possible suicidal ideation that warrants serious further assessment and counseling.

Wednesday, 26 June 2019

Q. Compared to the food requirements of preschoolers and adolescents, the food requirements of school-age children are not as great because these children have a lower:

A. Growth rate.
B. Metabolic rate.
C. Level of activity.
D. Hormonal secretion rate.



Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Children ages 6 to 12 have a slower growth rate than do younger children and adolescents. As a result, their food requirements are comparatively less.


Tuesday, 25 June 2019

Q. A nurse is caring for a family whose infant has anencephaly. The most appropriate nursing intervention is to:

A. help the family prepare for the infant's imminent death.
B. implement measures to facilitate the attachment process.
C. provide emotional support so the family can adjust to the birth of an infant with health problems.
D. prepare the family for the extensive surgical procedures the infant will require.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Anencephaly is incompatible with life. The nurse should support family members as they prepare for the infant's imminent death. Facilitating the attachment process, helping the family to adjust to the infant's problems, and preparing the family for extensive surgical procedures are inappropriate because the infant can't survive.


Monday, 24 June 2019

Question Of The Day, The Nursing Process
Q. During rounds, a nurse finds that a client with hemiplegia has fallen from the bed because the nursing assistant failed to raise the side rails after giving a back massage. The nurse assists the client to the bed and assesses for injury. As per agency policies, the nurse fills out an incident report. Which of the following activities should the nurse perform after finishing the incident report?

A. Attach a copy to the client's records.
B. Highlight the mistake in the client's records.
C. Include the time and date of the incident.
D. Mention the name of the nursing assistant in the client records.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The nurse should include the date and time of the incident in the incident report, the events leading up to it, the client's response, and a full nursing assessment. To prevent legal issues, the nurse should not attach the copy of the incident report to the client's records. Also to prevent litigation, the mistake should not be highlighted in the client's records. As the client report is a legal document, it should not contain the name of the nursing assistant.


Friday, 21 June 2019

Q. Which of the following laboratory findings is present in nephrotic syndrome?

A. Decreased total serum protein.
B. Hypercalcemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Decreased hematocrit.





Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A decreased total serum protein occurs as extensive amounts of protein are excreted from the body through the urine. Clients may develop hypocalcemia. Hyperglycemia is not a finding related to nephrotic syndrome. A decreased hematocrit is not a finding related to nephrotic syndrome.




Thursday, 20 June 2019

Q. A client with a tracheostomy tube coughs and dislodges the tracheostomy tube. The nurse's first action should be to:

A. Call for emergency assistance.
B. Attempt reinsertion of tracheostomy tube.
C. Position the client in semi-Fowler's position with the neck hyperextended.
D. Insert the obturator into the stoma to reestablish the airway.


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The nurse's first action should be to attempt to replace the tracheostomy tube immediately so that the client's airway is reestablished. Although the nurse may also call for assistance, there should be no delay before attempting reinsertion of the tube. The client is placed in a supine position with the neck hyperextended to facilitate reentry of the tube. The obturator is inserted into the replacement tracheostomy tube to guide insertion and is then removed to allow passage of air through the tube.

Wednesday, 19 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Neurosensory Disorders
Q. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is caring for a client who sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She notes that the client has become restless and agitated during therapy; previous documentation described the client as cooperative during therapy sessions. The nurse's priority action should be to:

A. gather assessment data and notify the physician of the change in the client's status.
B. ask the physician to order an antipsychotic medication for the client.
C. consult with the social worker about the possibility of discharging the client from the facility.
D. tell the client that she'll punish him if he doesn't behave.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A client with a head injury who experiences a change in cognition requires further assessment and evaluation, and the nurse should notify the physician of the change in the client's status. The physician should rule out all possible medical causes of the change in mental status before ordering antipsychotic medications or considering discharging the client from the facility. A nurse shouldn't threaten a client with punishment; doing so is a violation of the client's rights.

Tuesday, 18 June 2019

Q. Which finding best indicates that a nursing assistant has an understanding of blood glucose meter use?

A. Verbalizing an understanding of blood glucose meter use
B. Documenting a normal blood glucose level
C. Providing documentation of previous certification
D. Demonstrating correct technique


Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The best way to validate blood glucose meter use is to allow the nursing assistant to demonstrate correct technique. Verbalizing understanding doesn't demonstrate that the nursing assistant knows proper technique. Documenting a normal blood glucose level and having previous certification don't demonstrate blood glucose meter use.


Monday, 17 June 2019

Q. A client with gastroenteritis is admitted to an acute care facility and presents with severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Diagnostic tests reveal the Norwalk virus as the cause of gastroenteritis. Based on this information, the nurse knows that:

A. the client requires an antiviral agent.
B. enteric precautions must be continued.
C. enteric precautions can be discontinued.
D. the client's infection may be caused by droplet transmission.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The nurse must continue enteric precautions for a client with gastroenteritis caused by the Norwalk virus because this virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. No safe and effective antiviral agent is available specifically for treating viral gastroenteritis. The Norwalk virus isn't transmitted by droplets.


Sunday, 16 June 2019

Q. When assessing a client for early septic shock, the nurse should assess the client for which of the following?

A. Cool, clammy skin.
B. Warm, flushed skin.
C. Increased blood pressure.
D. Hemorrhage.




Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Warm, flushed skin from a high cardiac output with vasodilation occurs in warm shock or the hyperdynamic phase (first phase) of septic shock. Other signs and symptoms of early septic shock include fever with restlessness and confusion; normal or decreased blood pressure with tachypnea and tachycardia; increased or normal urine output; and nausea and vomiting or diarrhea. Cool, clammy skin occurs in the hypodynamic or cold phase (later phase). Hemorrhage is not a factor in septic shock.

Saturday, 15 June 2019

Q. Just after delivery, a nurse measures a neonate's axillary temperature at 94.1° F (34.5° C). What should the nurse do?

A. Rewarm the neonate gradually.
B. Rewarm the neonate rapidly.
C. Observe the neonate hourly.
D. Notify the physician when the neonate's temperature is normal.



Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A neonate with a temperature of 94.1° F is experiencing cold stress. To correct cold stress while avoiding hyperthermia and its complications, the nurse should rewarm the neonate gradually, observing closely and checking vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes. Rapid rewarming may cause hyperthermia. Hourly observation isn't frequent enough because cold stress increases oxygen, calorie, and fat expenditure, putting the neonate at risk for anabolic metabolism and possibly metabolic acidosis. A neonate with cold stress requires intervention; the nurse should notify the physician of the problem as soon as it's identified.

Friday, 14 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Postpartum Period
Q. A client is experiencing an early postpartum hemorrhage. Which item in the client's care plan requires revision?

A. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
B. Fundal massage
C. Administration of oxytocics
D. Pad count



Correct Answer: D

Explanation: By the time the client is hemorrhaging, a pad count is no longer appropriate. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter eliminates the possibility that a full bladder may be contributing to the hemorrhage. Fundal massage is appropriate to ensure that the uterus is well contracted, and oxytocics may be ordered to promote sustained uterine contraction.


Thursday, 13 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Antepartum Period
Q. A nurse is using Doppler ultrasound to assess a pregnant woman. When should the nurse expect to hear fetal heart tones?

A. 7 weeks' gestation
B. 11 weeks' gestation
C. 17 weeks' gestation
D. 21 weeks' gestation



Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Using Doppler ultrasound, fetal heart tones may be heard as early as the 11th week of pregnancy. Using a stethoscope, fetal heart tones may be heard between 17 and 20 weeks' gestation.

Wednesday, 12 June 2019

Q. A client with a tentative diagnosis of psychosis is admitted to the psychiatric unit. A physician orders the phenothiazine thioridazine 50 mg by mouth three times per day. Phenothiazines differ from central nervous system (CNS) depressants in their sedative effects by producing:

A. deeper sleep than CNS depressants.
B. greater sedation than CNS depressants.
C. a calming effect from which the client is easily aroused.
D. more prolonged sedative effects, making the client more difficult to arouse.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Shortly after phenothiazine administration, a quieting and calming effect occurs, but the client is easily aroused, alert, and responsive and has good motor coordination.


Tuesday, 11 June 2019

Q. Family members of a client with bipolar disorder tell a nurse that they are concerned that the client is becoming manic. The nurse knows that the manic phase is marked by:

A. flight of ideas and inflated self-esteem.
B. increased sleep and greater distractibility.
C. decreased self-esteem and increased physical restlessness.
D. obsession with following rules and maintaining order.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The manic phase of bipolar disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of a persistently euphoric and expansive or irritable mood. This phase is diagnosed if the client experiences four of the following signs and symptoms for at least 1 week: flight of ideas; inflated self-esteem; unusual talkativeness; increased social, occupational, or sexual activity; physical restlessness; a decreased need for sleep; increased distractibility; and excessive involvement in activities with a high potential for painful but unrecognized consequences. Obsession with following rules and maintaining order characterizes obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Monday, 10 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Foundations of Psychiatric Nursing
Q. A client is irritable and hostile. He becomes agitated and verbally lashes out when his personal needs are not immediately met by the staff. When the client's request for a pass is refused by the primary care provider, he utters a stream of profanities. Which of the following statements best describes the client's behavior?

A. The client's anger is not intended personally.
B. The client's anger is a reliable sign of serious pathology.
C. The client's anger is an intended attack on the primary care provider's skills
D. The client's anger is a sign that his condition is improving.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Staff members sometimes are the recipients of a client's angry behavior because they are safe targets and are available for attack. The display of anger is rarely intended to be personal. Such behavior is not necessarily a sign of serious pathology but must be weighed in conjunction with other behaviors. An angry outburst is not an attack on a primary care provider's skills. While not necessarily pathologic, the client's behavior isn't a sign that his condition is improving.

Saturday, 8 June 2019

Q. When performing a physical assessment on an 18-month-old child, which of the following would be best?

A. Have a parent hold the toddler.
B. Assess the ears and mouth first.
C. Carry out the assessment from head to toe.
D. Assess motor function by having the child run and walk.



Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The best strategy for assessing a toddler is to have the parent hold the toddler. Doing so is comforting to the toddler. Assessment should begin with noninvasive assessments first while the child is quiet. Typically these include assessments of the cardiac and respiratory systems. The ears and throat are typically examined last. Using a head-to-toe approach is more appropriate for an older child. For a toddler, assessment should begin with noninvasive assessments first while the child is quiet. Having a toddler run and be active may make it difficult to settle the child down after the physical exertion.


Friday, 7 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Infant
Q. The nurse is assessing the development of a 7-month-old. The child should be able to:

A. Play pat-a-cake.
B. Sit without support.
C. Say two words.
D. Wave bye-bye.





Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The majority of infants (90%) can sit without support by 7 months of age. Approximately 75% of infants at 10 months of age are able to play pat-a-cake. The ability to say two words occurs in 90% of children by age 16 months. A child typically can wave bye-bye at about 14 months of age.

Thursday, 6 June 2019

Question Of The Day, The Nursing Process
Q. A 57-year-old Hispanic woman with breast cancer who does not speak English is admitted for a lumpectomy. Her daughter, who speaks English, accompanies her. In order to obtain admission information from the client, what should the nurse do?

A. Ask the client's daughter to serve as an interpreter.
B. Ask one of the Hispanic nursing assistants to serve as an interpreter.
C. Use the limited Spanish she remembers from high school along with nonverbal communication.
D. Obtain a trained medical interpreter.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: A trained medical interpreter is required to ensure safety, accuracy of history data, and client confidentiality. The medical interpreter knows the client's rights and is familiar with the client's culture. Using the family member as interpreter violates the patient's confidentiality. Using the nursing assistant or limited Spanish and nonverbal communication do not ensure accuracy of interpretation and back-translation into English.

Wednesday, 5 June 2019

Nurse Career, Nurse Practitioners, Nursing Responsibilities

Whether you’re in the hospital for an injury or are going into labor, nurses are one of the main people who will tend to your needs with your treatment. Most people assume that nurses simply handle bed pans or check blood pressure, but the professionals have a long list of duties to perform behind the scenes. As one of the most difficult roles to perform in the healthcare industry, there are a few things you didn’t know that nurses do for you. [no_toc]

1. We order supplies and maintain inventory levels.


RN’s often perform non-clinical duties that include ordering supplies to maintaining adequate inventory levels at their stations. Nurses are often the ones who are most aware of what is needed for the patients and must determine what products and tools need to be delivered in specific quantities.

2. We bathe patients when they are physically unable to do so.


When patients are too ill or injured to bathe themselves, this requires the nurses to perform the task to maintain proper hygiene for the individual. If personal hygiene is not maintained, it can lead to infections that develop. This can also include cutting the patients’ hair and helping them to get dressed each day.

3. We help patients that need assistance with their diets and eating food.


A loss of appetite is common for patients who are admitted for an illness or disease. Nurses will often be required to feed the individuals and convince them to take a few bites to maintain their health and nutrition.

4. We communicate with other associated health care professionals consistently for higher patient care quality.


According to the University of San Francisco School of Nursing, which offers an online masters of nursing program, clinical nurse leaders must communicate on a regular basis with other healthcare professionals to improve the quality of patient care. Without proper communication to social workers or nurse practitioners, patients can suffer both physically and mentally. Their care must also be planned well by the nurse to increase their chances of a good outcome.

5. We provide entertainment to patients that are bored to sustain enjoyable environment.


Although it may not be in their job description, nurses are often asked to provide entertainment to patients who may become bored in their rooms. This can include reading, turning the television channel, and playing board games to maintain the patients’ mental well-being.

Nurses are often required to remain flexible in their positions and wear many different hats to perform their job well and provide proper care to the patients. The most qualified nurses are often those who are willing to go to extreme lengths to care for patients and ensure that they can recover in a shorter timeframe.
Q. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is prescribed for a client who has recently had a significant small and large bowel resection and is currently not taking anything by mouth. The nurse should:

A. Administer TPN through a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube.
B. Handle TPN using strict aseptic technique.
C. Auscultate for bowel sounds prior to administering TPN.
D. Designate a peripheral intravenous (IV) site for TPN administration.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: TPN is hypertonic, high-calorie, high-protein, intravenous (IV) fluid that should be provided to clients without functional gastrointestinal tract motility, to better meet their metabolic needs and to support optimal nutrition and healing. TPN is ordered once daily, based on the client's current electrolyte and fluid balance, and must be handled with strict aseptic technique (because of its high glucose content, it is a perfect medium for bacterial growth). Also, because of the high tonicity, TPN must be administered through a central venous access, not a peripheral IV line. There is no specific need to auscultate for bowel sounds to determine whether TPN can safely be administered.

Tuesday, 4 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Basic Physical Care
Q. The nurse observes that the right eye of an unconscious client does not close completely. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

A. Have the client wear eyeglasses at all times.
B. Lightly tape the eyelid shut.
C. Instill artificial tears once every shift.
D. Clean the eyelid with a washcloth every shift.




Correct Answer: B

Explanation: When the blink reflex is absent or the eyes do not close completely, the cornea may become dry and irritated. Corneal abrasion can occur. Taping the eye closed will prevent injury. Having the client wear eyeglasses or cleaning the eyelid will not protect the cornea from dryness or irritation. Artificial tears instilled once per shift are not frequent enough for preventing dryness.


Saturday, 1 June 2019

Question Of The Day, Neurosensory Disorders
Q. A nurse, a licensed practical nurse (LPN), and a nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. The nurse asks the nursing assistant to check the pulse oximetry level of a client who underwent laminectomy. The nursing assistant reports that the pulse oximetry reading is 89%. The client Kardex contains an order for oxygen application at 2 L/min should the pulse oximetry level fall below 92%. The nurse is currently assessing a postoperative client who just returned from the postanesthesia care unit. How should the nurse proceed?

A. Immediately go the client's room and assess vital signs, administer oxygen at 2 L/minute, and notify the physician.
B. Ask the nursing assistant to notify the physician of the low pulse oximetry level.
C. Ask the LPN to obtain vital signs and administer oxygen at 2 L/min to the client who underwent laminectomy.
D. Complete the assessment of the new client before attending to the client who underwent laminectomy.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Because it's important to get more information about the client with a decreased pulse oximetry level, the nurse should ask the LPN to obtain vital signs and administer oxygen as ordered. The nurse must attend to the newly admitted client without delaying treatment to the client who is already in her care. The nurse can effectively do this by delegating tasks to an appropriate health team member such as an LPN. The nurse doesn't need to immediately attend to the client with a decreased pulse oximetry level; she may wait until she completes the assessment of the newly admitted client. The physician doesn't need to be notified at this time because an order for oxygen administration is already on record.

Friday, 31 May 2019

Q. A nurse is caring for a client with lower back pain who is scheduled for myelography using metrizamide (a water-soluble contrast dye). After the test, the nurse should place the client in which position?

A. Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
B. Prone
C. Supine with feet raised
D. Supine with the head lower than the trunk


Correct Answer: A

Explanation: After a myelogram, positioning depends on the dye injected. When a water-soluble dye such as metrizamide is injected, the head of the bed is elevated to a 45-degree angle to slow the upward dispersion of the dye. The prone and supine positions are contraindicated when a water-soluble contrast dye is used. The client should be positioned supine with the head lower than the trunk after an air-contrast study.

Thursday, 30 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
Q. A client with type 1 diabetes must undergo bowel resection in the morning. How should the nurse proceed while caring for him on the morning of surgery?

A. Administer half of the client's typical morning insulin dose as ordered.
B. Administer an oral antidiabetic agent as ordered.
C. Administer an I.V. insulin infusion as ordered.
D. Administer the client's normal daily dose of insulin as ordered.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: If the nurse administers the client's normal daily dose of insulin while he's on nothing-by-mouth status before surgery, he'll experience hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should administer half the daily insulin dose as ordered. Oral antidiabetic agents aren't effective for type 1 diabetes. I.V. insulin infusions aren't necessary to manage blood glucose levels in clients undergoing routine surgery.


Wednesday, 29 May 2019

Q. The comatose victim of the car accident is to have a gastric lavage. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for the client during this procedure?

A. Lateral.
B. Supine.
C. Trendelenburg's.
D. Lithotomy.



Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An unconscious client is best positioned in a lateral or semiprone position because these positions allow the jaw and tongue to fall forward, facilitate drainage of secretions, and prevent aspiration. Positioning the client supine carries a major risk of airway obstruction from the tongue, vomitus, or nasopharyngeal secretions. Trendelenburg's position, with the head lower than the heart, decreases effective lung volume and increases the risk of cerebral edema. The lithotomy position has no purpose in this situation.

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