Saturday, 20 July 2019

Q. Which of the following is an early symptom of glaucoma?

A. Hazy vision.
B. Loss of central vision.
C. Blurred or "sooty" vision.
D. Impaired peripheral vision.




Correct Answer: D

Explanation: In glaucoma, peripheral vision is impaired long before central vision is impaired. Hazy, blurred, or distorted vision is consistent with a diagnosis of cataracts. Loss of central vision is consistent with senile macular degeneration but it occurs late in glaucoma. Blurred or "sooty" vision is consistent with a diagnosis of detached retina.
 

Friday, 19 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Gastrointestinal Disorders
Q. A client with a bleeding ulcer is vomiting bright red blood. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following indicators of early shock?

A. Tachycardia.
B. Dry, flushed skin.
C. Increased urine output.
D. Loss of consciousness.


Correct Answer: A

Explanation: In early shock, the body attempts to meet its perfusion needs through tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and fluid conservation. The skin becomes cool and clammy. Urine output in early shock may be normal or slightly decreased. The client may experience increased restlessness and anxiety from hypoxia, but loss of consciousness is a late sign of shock.


Thursday, 18 July 2019

Question Of The Day, The Neonate
Q. Nurses teach infant care and safety classes to assist parents in appropriately preparing to take their neonates home. Which statement about automobile restraints for infants is correct?

A. An infant should ride in a front-facing car seat until he weighs 20 lb (9.1 kg) and is 1 year old.
B. An infant should ride in a rear-facing car seat until he weighs 25 lb (11.3 kg) or is 1 year old.
C. An infant should ride in a front-facing car seat until he weighs 30 lb (13.6 kg) or is 2 years old.
D. An infant should ride in a rear-facing car seat until he weighs 20 lb and is 1 year old.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Until the infant weighs 20 lb and is 1 year old, he should ride in a rear-facing car seat.

Wednesday, 17 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Postpartum Period
Q. The nurse is caring for several mother-baby couplets. In planning the care for each of the couplets, which mother would the nurse expect to have the most severe afterbirth pains?

A. G 4, P 1 client who is breastfeeding her infant.
B. G 3, P 3 client who is breastfeeding her infant.
C. G 2, P 2 cesarean client who is bottle-feeding her infant.
D. G 3, P 3 client who is bottle-feeding her infant.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The major reasons for afterbirth pains are breast-feeding, high parity, overdistended uterus during pregnancy, and a uterus filled with blood clots. Physiologically, afterbirth pains are caused by intermittent contraction and relaxation of the uterus. These contractions are stronger in multigravidas in order to maintain a contracted uterus. The release of oxytocin when breast-feeding also stimulates uterine contractions. There is no data to suggest any of these clients has had an overdistended uterus or currently has clots within the uterus. The G 3, P 3 client who is breast-feeding has the highest parity of the clients listed, which—in addition to breast-feeding—places her most at risk for afterbirth pains. The G 2, P 2 postcesarean client may have cramping but it should be less than the G 3, P 3 client. The G 3, P 3 client who is bottle-feeding would be at risk for afterbirth pains because she has delivered several children, but her choice to bottle-feed reduces her risk of pain.
Nursing Degree, Nursing Responsibilities, Nursing Professionals, Nursing Roles, Nursing Schools

The staff and administrators of the hospital in Jonquière, Quebec, were in disbelief when it was discovered that a woman who had been working as a nurse and caring for hospital patients was a fraud.

Working as a ‘Nurse’


Following 20 years of experience in the job, the woman was immediately fired from her position in the said hospital by the health authority in the Saguenay-Lac-Saint-Jean region of eastern Quebec.

The health authority revealed that the woman managed to get hired and retain her position by presenting someone else’s nursing license number with an identical name as hers.

It was during her enrollment in a training course when an official remarked that the age placed on her license number did not meet up with her actual age.

Her tactic readily made headlines and she was quickly suspended pending an investigation, which led to her expulsion.

Prior to her dismissal, the woman had served in various departments of the hospital, including the operating room.

No Evidence of ‘Nursing Degree’


The health authorities teamed up with the investigators and found out that there is no evidence the woman had a nursing degree.

“Over the years, the documents asked of her were provided — falsified documents,” said spokeswoman Joelle Savard. She mentioned that the gap in its records system has been settled to ensure two people cannot use the same license number.

The spokeswoman was in disbelief how someone with no formal training had remained in the position for so long without anyone noticing her secret. She thought that the woman had been with mostly good medical staff and incorporated the basic and required skills for the job.

Big Surprise


The news arrived as a great hysteria, according to a union representative, Julie Bouchard.

“A few weeks, or a few months, that has happened before. But for such a long time, in our minds it was impossible,” she said.

President of Quebec’s Order of Nurses, Luc Mathieu, stated such matters involving frauds are rare but can cause great distress.

“It’s very serious, because that person could have committed acts that could have had serious consequences for patients,” he stated.

Tuesday, 16 July 2019

Q. A pregnant client in her third trimester is started on chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 25 mg four times daily. Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan?

A. "Don't drive because there's a possibility of seizures occurring."
B. "Avoid going out in the sun without a sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 25."
C. "Stop the medication immediately if constipation occurs."
D. "Tell your doctor if you experience an increase in blood pressure."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Chlorpromazine is a low-potency antipsychotic that is likely to cause sun-sensitive skin. Therefore the client needs instructions about using sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 25 or higher. Typically, chlorpromazine is not associated with an increased risk of seizures. Although constipation is a common adverse effect of this drug, it can be managed with diet, fluids, and exercise. The drug does not need to be discontinued. Chlorpromazine is associated with postural hypotension, not hypertension. Additionally, if postural hypotension occurs, safety measures, such as changing positions slowly and dangling the feet before arising, not stopping the drug, are instituted.

Monday, 15 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Psychotic Disorders
Q. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, just sat down to watch television in the lounge. As the nurse approaches the lounge area, the client states, "The sun is shining. Where is my son? I love Lucy. Let's play ball." The client is displaying:

A. Concreteness.
B. Flight of ideas.
C. Depersonalization.
D. Use of neologisms.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The client is demonstrating flight of ideas, or the rapid, unconnected, and often illogical progression from one topic to another. Concreteness involves interpreting another person's words literally. Depersonalization refers to feelings of strangeness concerning the environment or the self. A neologism is a word made up by a client.

Saturday, 13 July 2019

Question Of The Day, School-age Child
Q. A 7 year old with a history of tonic-clonic seizures has been actively seizing for 10 minutes. The child weighs 22 kg and currently has an intravenous (IV) line of D5 1/2 NS + 20 meq KCL/L running at 60 ml/hr. Vital signs are a temperature of 38 degrees C, heart rate of 120, respiratory rate of 28, and oxygen saturation of 92%. Using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique for communication, the nurse calls the primary healthcare provider with a recommendation for:

A. Rectal diazepam (Diastat).
B. IV lorazepam (Ativan).
C. Rectal acetaminophen (Tylenol).
D. IV fosphenytoin.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: IV ativan is the benzodiazepine of choice for treating prolonged seizure activity. IV benzodiazepines potentiate the action of the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter, stopping seizure activity. If an IV line is not available, rectal Diastat is the benzodiazepine of choice. The child does have a low-grade fever; however, this is likely caused by the excessive motor activity. The primary goal for the child is to stop the seizure in order to reduce neurologic damage. Benzodiazepines are used for the initial treatment of prolonged seizures. Once the seizure has ended, a loading dose of fosphenytoin or phenobarbital is given.

Thursday, 11 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Infant
Q. A 10-month-old child with recurrent otitis media is brought to the clinic for evaluation. To help determine the cause of the child's condition, the nurse should ask the parents:

A. "Does water ever get into the baby's ears during shampooing?"
B. "Do you give the baby a bottle to take to bed?"
C. "Have you noticed a lot of wax in the baby's ears?"
D. "Can the baby combine two words when speaking?"

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: In a young child, the eustachian tube is relatively short, wide, and horizontal, promoting drainage of secretions from the nasopharynx into the middle ear. Therefore, asking if the child takes a bottle to bed is appropriate because drinking while lying down may cause fluids to pool in the pharyngeal cavity, increasing the risk of otitis media. Asking if the parent noticed earwax, or cerumen, in the external ear canal is incorrect because wax doesn't promote the development of otitis media. During shampooing, water may become trapped in the external ear canal by large amounts of cerumen, possibly causing otitis external (external ear inflammation) as opposed to internal ear inflammation. Asking if the infant can combine two words is incorrect because a 10-month-old child isn't expected to do so.

Wednesday, 10 July 2019

Q. A client complains of severe abdominal pain. To elicit as much information as possible about the pain, the nurse should ask:

A . "Do you have the pain all the time?"
B. "Can you describe the pain?"
C. "Where does it hurt the most?"
D. "Is the pain stabbing like a knife?"




Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Asking an open-ended question such as "Can you describe the pain?" encourages the client to describe any and all aspects of the pain in his own words. The other options are likely to elicit less information because they're more specific and would limit the client's response.


Tuesday, 9 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Medication and I.V. Administration
Q. A 56-year-old client is receiving chemotherapy that has the potential to cause pulmonary toxicity. Which of the following symptoms indicates a toxic response to the chemotherapy?

A. Decrease in appetite.
B. Drowsiness.
C. Spasms of the diaphragm.
D. Cough and shortness of breath.


Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Cough and shortness of breath are significant symptoms because they may indicate decreasing pulmonary function secondary to drug toxicity. Decrease in appetite, difficulty in thinking clearly, and spasms of the diaphragm may occur as a result of chemotherapy; however, they are not indicative of pulmonary toxicity.


Monday, 8 July 2019

Question Of The Day, Basic Physical Care
Q. Which scenario complies with Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) regulations?

A. Two nurses in the cafeteria are discussing a client's condition.
B. The health care team is discussing a client's care during a formal care conference.
C. A nurse checks the computer for the laboratory results of a neighbor who has been admitted to another floor.
D. A nurse talks with her spouse about a client's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: To provide interdisciplinary continuity of care, nurses must share relevant information during client care conferences. Nurses discussing information in the cafeteria may be overheard; this indiscretion violates HIPAA regulations. Looking up laboratory results for a neighbor is a HIPAA violation, as is discussing a client's condition with one's spouse.


Saturday, 6 July 2019

Q. A nurse is conducting an initial assessment on a client with possible tuberculosis. Which assessment finding indicates a risk factor for tuberculosis?

A. The client sees his physician for a check-up yearly.
B. The client has never traveled outside of the country.
C. The client had a liver transplant 2 years ago.
D. The client works in a health care insurance office.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A history of immunocompromised status, such as that which occurs with liver transplantation, places the client at a higher risk for contracting tuberculosis. Other risk factors include inadequate health care, traveling to countries with high rates of tuberculosis (such as southeastern Asia, Africa, and Latin America), being a health care worker who performs procedures in which exposure to respiratory secretions is likely, and being institutionalized.

Friday, 5 July 2019

Q. When obtaining the vital signs of a client with multiple traumatic injuries, a nurse detects bradycardia, bradypnea, and systolic hypertension. The nurse must notify the physician immediately because these findings may reflect which complication?

A. Shock
B. Encephalitis
C. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
D. Status epilepticus

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: When ICP increases, Cushing's triad may develop, which involves decreased heart and respiratory rates and increased systolic blood pressure. Shock typically causes tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. In encephalitis, the temperature rises and the heart and respiratory rates may increase from the effects of fever on the metabolic rate. (If the client doesn't maintain adequate hydration, hypotension may occur.) Status epilepticus causes unceasing seizures, not changes in vital signs.


Wednesday, 3 July 2019

Q. A client with inflammatory bowel disease is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The basic component of the client's TPN solution is most likely to be:

A. An isotonic dextrose solution.
B. A hypertonic dextrose solution.
C. A hypotonic dextrose solution.
D. A colloidal dextrose solution.



Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The TPN solution is usually a hypertonic dextrose solution. The greater the concentration of dextrose in solution, the greater the tonicity. Hypertonic dextrose solutions are used to meet the body's calorie demands in a volume of fluid that will not overload the cardiovascular system. An isotonic dextrose solution (e.g., 5% dextrose in water) or a hypotonic dextrose solution will not provide enough calories to meet metabolic needs. Colloids are plasma expanders and blood products and are not used in TPN.

Tuesday, 2 July 2019

Q. While assessing a male neonate whose mother desires him to be circumcised, the nurse observes that the neonate's urinary meatus appears to be located on the ventral surface of the penis. The primary health care provider is notified because the nurse suspects which of the following?

A. Phimosis.
B. Hydrocele.
C. Epispadias.
D. Hypospadias.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The condition in which the urinary meatus is located on the ventral surface of the penis, termed hypospadias, occurs in 1 of every 500 male infants. Circumcision is delayed until the condition is corrected surgically, usually between 6 and 12 months of age. Phimosis is an inability to retract the prepuce at an age when it should be retractable or by age 3 years. Phimosis may necessitate circumcision or surgical intervention. Hydrocele is a painless swelling of the scrotum that is common in neonates. It is not a contraindication for circumcision. Epispadias occurs when the urinary meatus is located on the dorsal surface of the penis. It is extremely rare and is commonly associated with bladder extrophy.

Monday, 1 July 2019

Q. While assessing the fundus of a multiparous client on the first postpartum day, the nurse performs handwashing and dons clean gloves. Which of the following should the nurse do next?

A. Place the nondominant hand above the symphysis pubis and the dominant hand at the umbilicus.
B. Ask the client to assume a side-lying position with the knees flexed.
C. Perform massage vigorously at the level of the umbilicus if the fundus feels boggy.
D. Place the client on a bedpan in case the uterine palpation stimulates the client to void.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The nurse should place the nondominant hand above the symphysis pubis and the dominant hand at the umbilicus to palpate the fundus. This prevents uterine inversion and trauma, which can be very painful to the client. The nurse should ask the client to assume a supine, not side-lying, position with the knees flexed. The fundus can be palpated in this position and the perineal pads can be evaluated for lochia amounts. The fundus should be massaged gently if the fundus feels boggy. Vigorous massaging may fatigue the uterus and cause it to become firm and then boggy again. The nurse should ask the client to void before fundal evaluation. A full bladder can cause discomfort to the client, the uterus to be deviated to one side, and postpartum hemorrhage.

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