Saturday, 18 May 2019

Q. A child, age 3, is brought to the emergency department in respiratory distress caused by acute epiglottiditis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess?

A. Severe sore throat, drooling, and inspiratory stridor
B. Low-grade fever, stridor, and a barking cough
C. Pulmonary congestion, a productive cough, and a fever
D. Sore throat, a fever, and general malaise

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A child with acute epiglottiditis appears acutely ill and clinical manifestations may include drooling (because of difficulty swallowing), severe sore throat, hoarseness, a high temperature, and severe inspiratory stridor. A low-grade fever, stridor, and barking cough that worsens at night are suggestive of croup. Pulmonary congestion, productive cough, and fever along with nasal flaring, retractions, chest pain, dyspnea, decreased breath sounds, and crackles indicate pneumococcal pneumonia. A sore throat, fever, and general malaise point to viral pharyngitis.

Friday, 17 May 2019

Q. A 10-month-old child has cold symptoms. The mother asks how she can clear the infant's nose. Which of the following would be the nurse's best recommendation?

A. Use a cool air vaporizer with plain water.
B. Use saline nose drops and then a bulb syringe.
C. Blow into the child's mouth to clear the infant's nose.
D. Administer a nonprescription vasoconstrictive nose spray.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Although a cool air vaporizer may be recommended to humidify the environment, using saline nose drops and then a bulb syringe before meals and at nap and bed times will allow the child to breathe more easily. Saline helps to loosen secretions and keep the mucous membranes moist. The bulb syringe then gently aids in removing the loosened secretions. Blowing into the child's mouth to clear the nose introduces more organisms to the child. A nonprescription vasoconstrictive nasal spray is not recommended for infants because if the spray is used for longer than 3 days a rebound effect with increased inflammation occurs.

Thursday, 16 May 2019

Question Of The Day, The Nursing Process
Q. A nurse is documenting a variance that has occurred during the shift, and this report will be used for quality improvement to identify high-risk patterns and potentially initiate in-service programs. This is an example of which type of report?

A. Incident report.
B. Nurse's shift report.
C. Transfer report.
D. Telemedicine report.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An incident report, also termed a variance report or occurrence report, is a tool healthcare agencies use to document anything out of the ordinary that results in or has the potential to result in harm to a client, employee, or visitor. These reports are used for quality improvement and not for disciplinary action. They are a means of identifying risks and high-risk patterns and initiating in-service programs to prevent future problems. A nurse's shift report is given by a primary nurse to the nurse replacing him or her or by the charge nurse to the nurse who assumes responsibility for continuing client care. A transfer report is a summary of a client's condition and care when transferring clients from one unit or institution to another. A telemedicine report can link healthcare professionals immediately and enable nurses to receive and give critical information about clients in a timely fashion.

Wednesday, 15 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Medication and I.V. Administration
Q. To prevent development of peripheral neuropathies associated with isoniazid administration, the nurse should teach the client to:

A. Avoid excessive sun exposure.
B. Follow a low-cholesterol diet.
C. Obtain extra rest.
D. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6).

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Isoniazid competes for the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at risk for developing neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed to address this issue. Avoiding sun exposure is a preventive measure to lower the risk of skin cancer. Following a low-cholesterol diet lowers the individual's risk of developing atherosclerotic plaque. Rest is important in maintaining homeostasis but has no real impact on neuropathies.

Tuesday, 14 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Basic Physical Care
Q. A nurse is caring for a client who required chest tube insertion for a pneumothorax. To assess for pneumothorax resolution, the nurse can anticipate that the client will require:

A. monitoring of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2).
B. arterial blood gas (ABG) studies.
C. chest auscultation.
D. a chest X-ray.


Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Chest X-ray confirms diagnosis by revealing air or fluid in the pleural space. SaO2 values may initially decrease with a pneumothorax but typically return to normal within 24 hours. ABG studies may show hypoxemia, possibly with respiratory acidosis and hypercapnia but these are not necessarily related to a pneumothorax. Chest auscultation will determine overall lung status, but it's difficult to determine if the chest has reexpanded sufficiently.


Monday, 13 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Genitourinary Disorders
Q. When caring for a client after a closed renal biopsy, the nurse should?

A. Maintain the client on strict bed rest in a supine position for 6 hours.
B. Insert an indwelling catheter to monitor urine output.
C. Apply a sandbag to the biopsy site to prevent bleeding.
D. Administer I.V. opioid medications to promote comfort.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: After a renal biopsy, the client is maintained on strict bed rest in a supine position for at least 6 hours to prevent bleeding. If no bleeding occurs, the client typically resumes general activity after 24 hours. Urine output is monitored, but an indwelling catheter is not typically inserted. A pressure dressing is applied over the site, but a sandbag is not necessary. Opioids to control pain would not be anticipated; local discomfort at the biopsy site can be controlled with analgesics.




Sunday, 12 May 2019

Q. The physician ordered I.V. naloxone (Narcan) to reverse the respiratory depression from morphine administration. After administration of the naloxone the nurse should:

A. Check respirations in 5 minutes because naloxone is immediately effective in relieving respiratory depression.
B. Check respirations in 30 minutes because the effects of morphine will have worn off by then.
C. Monitor respirations frequently for 4 to 6 hours because the client may need repeated doses of naloxone.
D. Monitor respirations each time the client receives morphine sulfate 10 mg I.M.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The nurse should monitor the client's respirations closely for 4 to 6 hours because naloxone has a shorter duration of action than opioids. The client may need repeated doses of naloxone to prevent or treat a recurrence of the respiratory depression. Naloxone is usually effective in a few minutes; however, its effects last only 1 to 2 hours and ongoing monitoring of the client's respiratory rate will be necessary. The client's dosage of morphine will be decreased or a new drug will be ordered to prevent another instance of respiratory depression.

Saturday, 11 May 2019

Q. The client with a hearing aid does not seem to be able to hear the nurse. The nurse should do which of the following?

A. Contact the client's audiologist.
B. Cleanse the hearing aid ear mold in normal saline.
C. Irrigate the ear canal.
D. Check the hearing aid's placement.



Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Inadequate amplification can occur when a hearing aid is not placed properly. The certified audiologist is licensed to dispense hearing aids. The ear mold is the only part of the hearing aid that may be washed frequently; it should be washed daily with soap and water. Irrigation of the ear canal is done to remove impacted cerumen or a foreign body.

Friday, 10 May 2019

Q. A client has a herniated disk in the region of the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Which nursing assessment finding most supports this diagnosis?

A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Severe lower back pain
C. Sensory deficits in one arm
D. Weakness and atrophy of the arm muscles



Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The most common finding in a client with a herniated lumbar disk is severe lower back pain, which radiates to the buttocks, legs, and feet — usually unilaterally. A herniated disk also may cause sensory and motor loss (such as footdrop) in the area innervated by the compressed spinal nerve root. During later stages, it may cause weakness and atrophy of leg muscles. The condition doesn't affect bowel sounds or the arms.


Thursday, 9 May 2019

Q. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:

A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
D. Correctly answer a posttest about the procedure.


Correct Answer:  A

Explanation: The nurse should judge that learning has occurred from evidence of a change in the client's behavior. A client who performs a procedure safely and correctly demonstrates that he has acquired a skill. Evaluation of this skill acquisition requires performance of that skill by the client with observation by the nurse. The client must also demonstrate cognitive understanding, as shown by the ability to critique the nurse's performance. Explaining the steps demonstrates acquisition of knowledge at the cognitive level only. A posttest does not indicate the degree to which the client has learned a psychomotor skill.

Wednesday, 8 May 2019

Q. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery.


Tuesday, 7 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Oncologic Disorders
Q. The American Cancer Society recommends routine screening to detect colorectal cancer. Which screening test for colorectal cancer should a nurse recommend?

A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test after age 50
B. Proctosigmoidoscopy after age 30
C. Annual digital examination after age 40
D. Barium enema after age 20


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The American Cancer Society recommends an annual digital examination after age 40 for the purpose of detecting colorectal cancer. The CEA test is performed on clients who have already been treated for colorectal cancer. It helps monitor a client's response to treatment as well as detect metastasis or recurrence. Proctosigmoidoscopy is recommended every 3 to 5 years for people older than age 50. Barium enema isn't a screening test.

Monday, 6 May 2019

Question Of The Day, Cardiovascular Disorders
Q. A client with a past medical history of ventricular septal defect repaired in infancy is seen at the prenatal clinic. She is complaining of dyspnea with exertion and being very tired. Her vital signs are 98, 80, 20, BP 116/72. She has + 2 pedal edema and clear breath sounds. As the nurse plans this client's care, which of the following is her cardiac classification according to the New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease classification?

A. Class I.
B. Class II.
C. Class III.
D. Class IV.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: According to the New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease classification, this client would fit under Class II because she is symptomatic with increased activity (dyspnea with exertion). The New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease Classification identifies Class II clients as having cardiac disease and a slight limitation in physical activity. When physical activity occurs, the client may experience angina, difficulty breathing, palpations, and fatigue. All of the client's other symptoms are within normal limits.


Saturday, 4 May 2019

Q. After being treated with heparin therapy for thrombophlebitis, a multiparous client who delivered 4 days ago is to be discharged on oral warfarin (Coumadin). After teaching the client about the medication and possible effects, which of the following client statements indicates successful teaching?

A. "I can take two aspirin if I get uterine cramps."
B."Protamine sulfate should be available if I need it."
C. "I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
D. "I can drink an occasional glass of wine if I desire."

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Successful teaching is demonstrated when the client says, "I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." Heparin therapy can cause the gums to bleed, so a soft toothbrush should be used to minimize this adverse effect. Use of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be avoided because of the increased risk for possible hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin therapy. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin excess. Alcohol can inhibit the metabolism of oral anticoagulants and should be avoided.

Friday, 3 May 2019

Q. A nurse is assessing a woman in labor. Her cervix is dilated 8 cm. Her contractions are occurring every 2 minutes. She's irritable and in considerable pain. What type of breathing should the nurse instruct the woman to use during the peak of a contraction?

A. Deep breathing
B. Shallow chest breathing
C. Deep, cleansing breaths
D. Chest panting


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Shallow chest breathing is used during the peak of a contraction during the transitional phase of labor. Deep breathing can cause a woman to hyperventilate and feel light-headed, with numbness or tingling in her fingers or toes. A deep, cleansing breath taken at the beginning and end of each breathing exercise can help prevent hyperventilation. Chest panting may be used to prevent a woman from pushing before the cervix is fully dilated.

Thursday, 2 May 2019

Q. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with bright red bleeding and no abdominal pain. A nurse should first:

A. perform a pelvic examination.
B. assess the client's blood pressure.
C. assess the fetal heart rate.
D. order a stat hemoglobin and hematocrit.



Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The nurse should assess the fetal heart rate for distress or viability. She shouldn't attempt to perform a pelvic examination because of the possibility of placenta previa, which presents as bright red bleeding without abdominal pain. The nurse should assess the client's blood pressure after attempting to hear fetal heart tones. Ordering a hemoglobin and hematocrit is a physician intervention, not a nursing intervention.



Wednesday, 1 May 2019

A comprehensive study has confirmed that across the world, the environment in which nurses’ work influences the quality of nursing care, nurses’ job outcomes and patient well-being. These findings should convince health administrators to give more attention to working environments, according to the researchers.

Nursing Responsibilities, Nursing Career, Nursing Job,

“Our results support the unique status of the nurse work environment as a foundation for both patient and provider well-being that warrants the resources and attention of health care administrators,” said Eileen Lake, the lead investigator. Lake is the Associate Director of the Center for Health Outcomes and Policy Research of the University of Pennsylvania School of Nursing.

Nurses’ work environment compared to outcomes


The research was an extensive meta-analysis of previous studies where measurements of nursing work environments were statistically compared to four outcomes. The first was nurse job outcomes in terms of burnout, job dissatisfaction and intention to leave. The second was nurses’ reports on the quality and safety of patient care and conditions in the unit.

Patient outcomes were analyzed based on 30-day inpatient mortality and adverse events. The final result included in the analysis was patient satisfaction, measured on patients’ ratings of the hospital.

The findings showed that in better working environments nurses were 28%-32% less likely to experience job dissatisfaction, burnout and intention to leave. The chances of poor quality and safety ratings were reduced by 23%-51%.

At the same time, the odds that patients were satisfied increased by 16% and the possibility of inpatient deaths and adverse events was reduced by 8% – nearly 1 in 10.

Rigorous study design


The value and strength of the above conclusions lie in the fact that they are a summary of extensive previous research, using a quantitative meta-analysis. Out of a possible 308 studies, 17 qualified for inclusion and they spanned 16 years. The studies represented research undertaken in 22 different countries across the world – in the US, UK, Canada, Europe, and Asia. Data from more than 2,600 hospitals, 165,000 nurses and 1.3 million patients were subjected to rigorous statistical analysis.

Only studies using the Practice Environment Scale of Nursing Work Index (PES-NWI) as a measurement were included in the research. This the most accepted tool for assessing nursing work environments. It covers quality care, nurse manager ability, adequacy of staffing and resources, and the relationships between colleagues. The tool is supported globally by quality, health professional and accreditation organizations.

Nurses’ work environments need attention


The researchers believed that the study provides conclusive evidence that nurses’ work environment is related to a wide range of outcomes both for the service provider and the patient. The findings are relevant not only for policymakers and health care administrators but also for nurses, patients, and their families.
Q. A client with a history of polysubstance abuse is admitted to the facility. He complains of nausea and vomiting 24 hours after admission. The nurse who assesses the client notes piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation. The nurse suspects that the client is going through withdrawal from which substance?

A. Alcohol
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. Opioids

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation are specific to opioid withdrawal. A client with alcohol withdrawal would show elevated vital signs. There is no real withdrawal from cannabis. Symptoms of cocaine withdrawal include depression, anxiety, and agitation.

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